Telophase I yields two haploid cells. Which statement is true?

• A. Each daughter cell contains identical sister chromatids.
• B. Each daughter cell contains only one chromosome from each homologous pair.
• C. Chromosomes condense again in each daughter.
• D. No cytokinesis occurs.

Answer: (B)

Meiosis I is a reduction division where homologous chromosomes are separated, not the sister chromatids. This is why telophase I yields two haploid cells: the chromosome number is halved because one chromosome from each homologous pair is pulled into each daughter cell. However, each chromosome in those daughter cells still consists of two sister chromatids, because the separation of sister chromatids happens in meiosis II, not in the first division. Therefore, the statement that each daughter cell contains only one chromosome from each homologous pair is the true description of the outcome.

If you think about the other ideas, chromosomes often de-condense after telophase I and then re-condense as meiosis II approaches, so they are not condensing again anew in each daughter right away. Cytokinesis typically accompanies telophase I to physically separate the cells, so saying no cytokinesis occurs isn’t accurate. And while sister chromatids are identical before crossing over, recombination during prophase I can produce chromatids that are no longer identical, so the idea that each daughter cell contains identical sister chromatids isn’t guaranteed.